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I know that $\\infty/\\infty$ is not generally defined However, if we have 2 equal infinities divided by each other, would it be 1 Does anyone have a recommendation for a book to use for the self study of real analysis Several years ago when i completed about half a semester of real analysis i, the. HINT: You want that last expression to turn out to be $\big (1+2+\ldots+k+ (k+1)\big)^2$, so you want $ (k+1)^3$ to be equal to the difference $$\big (1+2+\ldots+k+ (k+1)\big)^2-. The theorem that $\binom {n} {k} = \frac {n!} {k Otherwise this would be restricted to $0